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Rebel Economist Challenge

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The MMT Fallacy
For those that don't want to read this entire post, let's not bury the lead: MMT is wrong: - The U.S. does not have a spend and then tax system, we have a tax then spend system - The U.S. Treasury does not issue the U.S Dollar - The Fed does not issue reserves for the Treasury to spend - The Fed does not issue new reserves to pay the Gov's bills directly - The Gov cannot spend before receiving tax receipts or revenue from bond sales Below I explain in detail exactly why. Please let me know if you think I made any mistakes. After many, many hours of discussions with friends here and elsewhere, I think it’s finally becoming clear, I have finally gotten to the bottom of the MMT debate, so please let me know if you agree. We can have a tax and spend system, which many people believe we have today, and under a tax and spend system in 2024, the USG would have taxed roughly $5T and spent roughly $7T, showing a roughly $2T deficit, and the Gov would have had to borrow roughly $2T to cover the deficit spending. Or we can have a spend then tax system, which MMT believes we have today, and in 2024 the USG would have issued and spent $7T and taxed back $5T, showing a $2T deficit, as the USG spent $2T more than they received back in tax revenue. Two different systems that in practice don’t matter much until you have a deficit. Under a tax and spend model, to cover deficit spending the Gov has to borrow, because desired spending exceeds tax receipts. Under a spend first then tax back model, the Gov already spent the $, so the deficit is covered by issuing money, no borrowing or debt, the deficit is created because tax receipts are lower than currency issued and already spent, so all the money issued is not all taxed back. Which model we have is the heart of the MMT debate. A currency issuer always has a liability for the currency they issue, which means when they issue their currency they increase their Liabilities on their Balance Sheet, and when they receive their currency back as payment, they reduce their Liabilities. If they receive 100% of the currency they issued back as payment, their Liabilities go to zero and all currency is removed form circulation.
0 likes • 18d
@Jon Underwood >>No, because nobody can create assets to spend, they can only spend Assets they have, or they can issue IOUs/Liabilities.<< I think what you are saying is that Treasury cannot spend assets it does not have. Whereas K-K says it can. But I cannot see where you get this rule. It is not inherent to DEBK. You are confusing it with the FFR. The Treasury can have -A provided you start with a stock of reserves to spend. If the stock is zero then according to the FFR it must sell bonds to obtain reserves for spending. But that is not a consequence of DEBK. It is just an arbitrary and circumventable rule. Claiming that the Treasury cannot spend assets it does not have is the household analogy. It as an ideological claim that cannot be supported merely by DEBK. >>Treasury spending always reduces Equity. However, I also said Treasury cannot create assets for itself to spend, only Liabilities or IOUs.<< Treasury does not need to create assets for spending. It just spends into overdraft. This is how money is created when it spent into existence. You are saying that there must be -E - no way out of this. But then you say >>I can use your notation if that makes a difference. Model 1: 0/1/-1 Model 2: 1/1/0 Does that help? I provided you a paper that outlined every transaction with the check sums in the far right column. It’s not that difficult, three variables total, I only use 1 or -1 or zero, have no idea why all of this us so hard for you, the three variables and up to zero if you follow this equation A-L-E = 0.<< and >>We don’t have a model 1 system, we use model 2.<< Now you say Model 2 does not generate -E. ButTable 3A in your says it does. And how do you now reconcile this with your previous definition of Model 2: >>Under model 2 when Treasury spends we will see no net increase in total issuer/BoE liabilities because new issuer/BoE Liabilities +L (+Reserves) are offset by a reduction in issuer/BoE Liabilities -L (-Reserves) to Treasury. Treasury itself sees this as a reduction in Assets -A ( -Reserves) and a reduction in Equity (-E). This us an asset payment for Treasury (-A = -E) but a Liability Swap for the BoE (-L+L = 0).<<
0 likes • 18d
@Jon Underwood Why are you not understanding after 1 year that Treasury cannot make ASSSTS for itself to spend! Because DEBK does not prevent it from doing so. Therefore it is possible. Given that your models still seem mixed up Model 1: 0/1/-1 - This is K-K with a loan from the CB Model 2: 1/1/0 - Not K-K. and Not possible because it has no -E. Model 3: -1/0/-1 - This is K-K Each obeys DEBK. >>Or why you don’t understand is model 1/MMT, what you promote, means that every dollar of Treasury spending in the U.S. is $7T in new reserve creation, -$7T in Equity at least temporarily, but Fred does not show this!<< It certainly does! https://fred.stlouisfed.org/series/FGEXPND
Errors In The MMT UCL Self Financing State Article
Friends, I read the UCL Self Financing State Article, which MMT points to as ‘proof’ the Bank of England creates new money for the Government to both spend and deficit spend. https://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=4890683 The research on the U.K. Government accounts is fantastic! However, their conclusions do not seem to match their research, it is like they wrote the conclusions before they wrote the paper! Chris Rimmer asked me to write out the mistakes I am seeing in their conclusions, so here it is. Please review, and let me know if you see any mistakes; if so, what do you think am I missing? Or do you agree they made mistakes? Please advise. Thx! 1. The U.K. Parliament Approved Deficit Spending Over The Last 4 Years. · 120B pounds 21/22 · 127B POUNDS 22/23 · 134B POUNDS 23/24 · 146B POUNDS 24/25 P24 : https://researchbriefings.files.parliament.uk/documents/CBP-9040/CBP-9040.pdf 2. The BoE Has Reduced The Supply Of Reserves Almost 30% The Last Four Years From Around 1T Pounds To Roughly 700T Pounds Today. https://www.bankofengland.co.uk/markets/bank-of-england-market-operations-guide/our-objectives Q: How could reserves go down if the Bank of England was issuing new reserves to pay for Government spending or Deficit Spending? 3. The Treasury Debt Management Office (DMO) Sells Gilts Before Funds Are Needed, So Treasury Always Has Excess Reserves On Deposit To Meet All Spending Obligations, And Does Not Need To Borrow From The Bank Of England. https://www.dmo.gov.uk/responsibilities/financing-remit/ 4. The U.K Government And HM Treasury Credit Line With The Bank Of England Shows The Government Has Not Borrowed From The Bank Of England In The Last 15 Years.
0 likes • Jun 27
@Jon Underwood Keeping it simple again:) >>Are you referring to the Treasury as the issuer: meaning that the Treasury has a +L?” - Yes - If so and we do +A, - We do +A at the CB. - then who owns the asset corresponding to L? - CB<< Your shorthand notation is difficult to follow. DEBK means double entry: if the Treasury issues +A and +L then the CB must have +L and +A. So is this my Minsky model here? Model 2: CB+T balance sheet expansion Issuance by Treasury CB...............................................................Treasury A.........L..........E...........................................A.......L.......E R.........0,R........0...........................................R.......R.......0 Spending CB...............................................................Treasury A.........L..........E...........................................A.......L.......E R.........R,0........0...........................................0.......R......-R
0 likes • Aug 5
@Jon Underwood I have read the document thoroughly. There are no errors that I can see. I notice that your "SUMMARY of 3: TREASURY SPENDING" is Figure 7 of K-K. And as you say above... https://www.skool.com/stevekeen-free/errors-in-the-mmt-ucl-self-financing-state-article?p=4f0a0f30 >>Do you see that this accurately reflects what is written in K-K?<< Yes as does the above in your DOC. (although you now add the tax transactions). When we were talking about how money creation happens you say >>1. Do you understand that a currency issuer ALWAYS issues new currency as a Liability of the issuer? Y/N?<< and >>But if you cannot understand currency is being issued as a Liability, there is not much hope we will ever get you clear on modern money mechanics I am afraid.<< So what about this (not my corrections to your notation).... As for K-K Figure 7 you say... 1. Treasury spends their Assets Assets (-Spendg) Equity (-Spendg) 2. Central Bank Liability Swap Liabilities (-Spendg Treasury) Liabilities (+Spendg Reserves Bank) 3. Bank Assets (+Spendg Reserves) Liabilities (+Spendg Deposits) 4. Private Sector Assets (+Spendg) Equity (+Spendg) We could equivalently write, 1. Treasury creates a new liability Liabilities (+Spendg) Equity (-Spendg) 2. Central Bank expands its balance sheet Assets (+Spendg Treasury) Liabilities (+Spendg Reserves Bank) 3. Bank Assets (+Spendg Reserves) Liabilities (+Spendg Deposits) 4. Private Sector Assets (+Spendg) Equity (+Spendg) Where we are simply recognising that a negative asset as a liability. This is why I was confused about the need for liabilities in the issuance of money. And to be clear your are only talking about Treasury spending. Another way to generate FIAT money is with OMO/QE where the CB creates new money to purchase assets from the non-banks.This is just as important because when those assets are bought from non-banks there are new fiat money deposits in bank accounts that are not created when the OMOs are with banks.
FJG vs UBI for full employment and price stability
Preliminary simulations using MESSSI (Macro Economic System State Simulator) developed by Tyron Keynes reveals that whereas the FJG is superior to UBI in targeting this dual objective, nevertheless a combination of the two when applied to lower income earners contributes significantly in reducing overall income and wealth inequalities. https://www.relearningeconomics.com/what-the-messsi-model-says-about-a-ubi-and-fjg
1 like • Aug 1
@Stephen Hinton I admit that I am a beginner to the FJG but I believe that there should be a government role in the job market and MMT shows it can happen. I also agree that both an FJG and a UBI are necessary as the latter would underpin the former. Moreover the FJG should not just be a government policy or left to fiscal policy but be administered by a special government department for labour that takes a holistic approach to employment. However the criticisms of Richard Murphy bother me. He suggests that the job of a FJG (and any department of labour) could be rolled back into fiscal policy. https://www.taxresearch.org.uk/Blog/2026/04/23/am-i-an-mmt-economist/#gsc.tab=0 https://www.taxresearch.org.uk/Blog/wp-content/uploads/2026/03/blog-post-mmt-and-the-job-guarantee.pdf This approach would subject workers to the ideological whims of the electoral cycle as it already does. The introduction of the FJG is a huge complex project but as Patricia Pino says "The NHS is complex. The education system is complex. Complexity has never been a sufficient reason to reject an institution whose function is considered essential. The relevant question is whether guaranteeing access to work is deemed sufficiently important to justify organisation at that scale." https://mmtuk.org/education/briefings/job-guarantee-essential-eliminate-unemployment/
New video is up!
You know how everyone panics about government debt? What if the thing that actually crashes economies is not government borrowing at all, but the debt sitting in your bank account, your mortgage, your credit card, your car loan? In the textbook version, a government running a 1% deficit sees its debt ratio climb toward infinity. Steve built that model in Ravel©. The curve just keeps rising. Looks terrifying. 🫤 Then he changed one detail. He moved the bonds from households to where they actually sit: with the banks. Same equations. Same deficit. Same interest rate. The debt ratio stopped at 50% of GDP. No spiral. No crisis. One wrong assumption in a textbook. 50 years of austerity built on top of it. This one is a must watch. 👇 https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=5l5kROMYEcw&views
0 likes • Jul 7
Loved the video. But it has a very strange title "The Real Reason Governments Can’t Just Print More Money: Top Economist"?
MMT responds to their critics
This is a great clarifying piece from the thought leaders of MMT responding to their critics. They make the point to differentiate between a generalized description of money mechanics vs. specific implementation like the U.S. model. As has pointed out in the past, they clearly understand how the U.S. system clearly works under today’s self selected fiscal and legal constraints, such as the TGA must be funded prior to spending, no Treasury overdraft at the Fed, and the Fed cannot buy bonds directly from the Treasury. Supporters of MMT often conflate the need for the Fed/CB to create new Reserves by spending or lending, with the Treasury creating new reserves by Gov spending, but which the authors do not. Anything here anybody would like to point out or discuss? Anything anybody would like to add?
0 likes • May 14
@Jon Underwood While I am preparing my response (because you have now spread this to your substack) may be you would like to consider the following: QUESTION Does the paper Money creation in the modern economy By Michael McLeay, Amar Radia and Ryland Thomas of the Bank’s Monetary Analysis Directorate erroneously omit money creation by the Government? RESPONSE The Bank of England paper is definitive regarding commercial bank money creation, but it fails to address the fiscal side of the ledger where government deficits create money directly It was a vital breakthrough that destroyed the money multiplier myth, yet it left the "institutional plumbing" of the Treasury in the background . The Fiscal-Monetary Lever The main mechanism you must look at is the eight-entry model of government money creation While the Bank of England correctly explained that loans create deposits, they focused on credit-backed money, which represents a balance sheet expansion within the private sector A government deficit, however, is a unique injection of net financial assets into the private sector that does not have a matching private debt liability . By focusing primarily on commercial banks, the paper leaves the impression that the Central Bank and private lenders are the only actors In my Ravel simulations, I show that government spending precedes taxation and actually creates the reserves that banks later use to purchase bonds The paper is a superb first step for debunking neoclassical myths, but it only describes one-half of the monetary engine.
0 likes • May 15
@Jon Underwood >>“The paper is a superb first step for debunking neoclassical myths, but it only describes one-half of the monetary engine.” I give you both halves of the sandwich, and a side of fries to booot!<< When I previously made this claim here https://www.skool.com/stevekeen/a-video-loaded-with-the-myths-of-money?p=5d7293ab You said... >>@Gerard Borg “it does not describe how the government of a fiat economy creates money.” Gerard, there is a very simple reason for this…it simply does not happen. In 2024 the U.S. Government issued a grand total of $0 USD.<< So to be clear. Do you agree that the McLeay paper "only describes one-half of the monetary engine." -- and it fails to address the fiscal side of the ledger where government deficits create money directly -- Ans. Y/N
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Gerard Borg
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@gerard-borg-3805
I am a physicist and wireless engineer with a PhD in Plasma Physics. University researcher and lecturer in radio engineering, physics and mathematics.

Active 6h ago
Joined Jul 31, 2024
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